Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 15:29
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Has your mother ever walked in on you at an inappropriate time?
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Liberals, why don't you like Conservatives?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.